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JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2

51 questions from the official paper, reproduced here as clean searchable text so you can find any question instantly on Google, ChatGPT, or inside JEEVisionary.

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JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2 -- 51 questions in one page

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Exam
JEE Advanced
Year
2024
Session
Paper 2
Language
English
Questions
51
All questions

51 questions of JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2

Original printed text, with options shown where available. Scroll down to read the full paper in order.

Question 1 (Mathematics)

Considering only the principal values of the inverse trigonometric functions, the value of 1132tan sin 2cos5 5−−  −     is

  1. 7 24
  2. 7 24−
  3. 5 24−
  4. 5 24
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Question 2 (Mathematics)

Let  22( , ) : 0, 0, 4 , 12 2 and 3 8 5 8 . S x y x y y x y x y x=       − +  If the area of the region S is 2, then  is equal to

  1. 17 2
  2. 17 3
  3. 17 4
  4. 17 5
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Question 3 (Mathematics)

Let . k If ( )2 6 0lim , sin(sin ) cosx xe kx x x →+= ++ then the value of k is

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
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Question 4 (Mathematics)

Let :f→ be a function defined by 2 2sin , if 0,() 0, if 0.xxfx x x = =  Then which of the following statements is TRUE?

  1. ( ) 0fx= has infinitely many solutions in the interval 101, 10 .
  2. ( ) 0fx= has no solutions in the interval 1,  .
  3. The set of solutions of ( ) 0fx= in the interval 1010, 10  is finite.
  4. ( ) 0fx= has more than 25 solutions in the interval 211,   . • For example, in a question, if (A), (B ) and
  5. are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers , then choosing ONLY (A),
  6. and
  7. will get +4 marks; choosing ONLY (A) and ( B) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (A) and ( D) will get +2marks; choosing ONLY (B ) and ( D) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark; choosing ONLY
  8. will get +1 mark; choosing ONLY
  9. will get +1 mark; choosing no option(s) (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks and choosing any other option (s) will get −2 marks.
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Question 5 (Mathematics)

Let S be the set of all ( , ) such that 2 21sin( )(log ) sin lim 0.(log (1 ))e xexxx xx  →=+ Then which of the following is (are) correct?

  1. ( 1, 3) S−
  2. ( 1, 1) S−
  3. (1, 1) S−
  4. (1, 2) S−
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Question 6 (Mathematics)

A straight line drawn from the point (1,3, 2),P parallel to the line 2 4 6,1 2 1x y z− − −== intersects the plane 1: 3 6L x y z− + = at the point .Q Another straight line which passes through Q and is perpendicular to the plane 1L intersects the plane 2: 2 4L x y z− + =− at the point .R Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?

  1. The length of the line segment PQ is 6
  2. The coordinates of R are (1,6,3)
  3. The centroid of the triangle PQR is 4 14 5,,3 3 3 
  4. The perimeter of the triangle PQR is 2 6 11++
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Question 7 (Mathematics)

Let 1 1 1,,A B C be three points in the xy -plane. Suppose that the lines 11AC and 11BC are tangents to the curve 28yx= at 1A and 1,B respectively. If (0,0)O= and 1( 4,0), C=− then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?

  1. The length of the line segment 1OA is 43
  2. The length of the line segment 11AB is 16
  3. The orthocenter of the triangle 1 1 1A B C is (0,0)
  4. The orthocenter of the triangle 1 1 1A B C is (1,0)
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Question 8 (Mathematics)

Let :f→ be a function such that ( ) ( ) ( ) for all , ,f x y f x f y x y+ = +  and : (0, )g→ be a function such that ( ) ( ) ( ) for all , . g x y g x g y x y+ =  If 3112 and 2,53fg−−   ==       then the value of ()1 + 2 8 (0)4f g g−− is ________.

Numerical answer type

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Question 9 (Mathematics)

A bag contains N balls out of which 3 balls are white, 6 balls are green, and the remaining balls are blue. Assume that the balls are identical otherwise. Three balls are drawn randomly one after the other without replacement. For 1,2,3,i= let , , and i i iW G B denote the events that t he ball drawn in the thi draw is a white ball, green ball, and blue ball, respectively. If the probability 1 2 32()5P W G BN= and the conditional probability 3 1 22( ) ,9P B W G = then N equals ______ .

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Question 10 (Mathematics)

Let the function :f→ be defined by ( ) ()( ) ()2023 2023 222024 2025 2024 2025 sin 2() 33xxx x x xxfxee x x x x+ + + + =+ − + − + . Then the number of solutions of ( ) 0fx= in is ______.

Numerical answer type

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Question 11 (Mathematics)

Let ˆ ˆˆ23p i j k= + + and ˆ ˆˆ . q i j k= − + If for some real numbers ,, and , we have ()()()ˆ ˆˆ15 10 6 2 2 ,i j k p q p q p q    + + = + + − +  then the value of  is _______.

Numerical answer type

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Question 12 (Mathematics)

A normal with slope 1 6 is drawn from the point (0, )− to the parabola 24, x ay=− where 0.a Let L be the line passing through (0, )− and parallel to the directrix of the parabola. Suppose that L intersects the parabola at two points A and .B Let r denote the length of the latus rectum and s denote the square of the length of the line segment .AB If : 1:16,rs= then the value of 24a is __________.

Numerical answer type

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Question 13 (Mathematics)

Let the function :[1, )f→ be defined by () ()1( 1) 2, if 2 1, , () 2 1 (2 1)(2 1) (2 1), if 2 1 2 1, .22nt n n ft n t t nf n f n n t n n+ − = − =+ − − −− + + −   +   Define 1( ) ( ) , (1, ).x g x f t dt x=   Let  denote the number of solutions of the equation ( ) 0gx= in the interval (1,8] and 1()lim .1xgx x →+=− Then the value of + is equal to _____.

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Question 14 (Mathematics)

If 6 ( ) ,mn X C= then the value of m is __________. PARAGRAP H “I” Let  1,2,3,4,5,6S= and X be the set of all relations R from S to S that satisfy both the following properties: i. R has exactly 6 elements. ii. For each ( , ) ,a b R we have 2. ab− Let   : The range of has exactly one element Y R X R= and   : is a function from to . Z R X R S S= Let ()nA denote the number of elements in a set .A (There are two questions based on PARAGRAP H “I”, the question given below is one of them) PARAGRAP H “I” Let  1,2,3,4,5,6S= and X be the set of all relations R from S to S that satisfy both the following properties: i. R has exactly 6 elements. ii. For each ( , ) ,a b R we have 2. ab− Let   : The range of has exactly one element Y R X R= and   : is a function from to . Z R X R S S= Let ()nA denote the number of elements in a set .A (There are two questions based on PARAGRAP H “I”, the question given below is one of them)

Numerical answer type

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Question 15 (Mathematics)

If the value of ( ) ( )n Y n Z+ is 2,k then ||k is _____________. PARAGRAP H “II” Let : 0, [0,1]2f→ be the function defined by 2( ) sinf x x= and let : 0, [0, )2g→ be the function defined by 2( ) .2xg x x=− (There are two questions based on PARAGRAP H “II”, the question given below is one of them)

Numerical answer type

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Question 16 (Mathematics)

The value of 22 002 ( ) ( ) ( )f x g x dx g x dx − is __________. PARAGRAP H “II” Let : 0, [0,1]2f→ be the function defined by 2( ) sinf x x= and let : 0, [0, )2g→ be the function defined by 2( ) .2xg x x=− (There are two questions based on PARAGRAP H “II”, the question given below is one of them)

Numerical answer type

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Question 17 (Mathematics)

The value of 2 3 016( ) ( )f x g x dx  is ____________.

Numerical answer type

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Question 18 (Physics)

A region in the form of an equilateral triangle (in x-y plane) of height L has a uniform magnetic field 𝐵⃗ pointing in the +z-direction. A conducting loop PQR, in the form of an equilateral triangle of the same height 𝐿, is placed in the x-y plane with its vertex P at x = 0 in the orientation shown in the figure . At 𝑡=0, the loop starts entering the region of the magnetic field with a uniform velocity 𝑣 along the +x-direction. The plane of the loop and its orientation remain unchanged throughout its motion . Which of the following graph best depicts the variation of the induced emf ( E) in the loop as a function of the distance (𝑥) starting from 𝑥 = 0?

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Question 19 (Physics)

A particle of mass 𝑚 is under the influence of the gravitational field of a body of mass 𝑀 (≫𝑚). The particle is moving i n a circular orbit of radius 𝑟0 with time period 𝑇0 around the mass 𝑀. Then, the particle is subjected to an additional central force, corresponding to the potential energy 𝑉c(𝑟) =𝑚𝛼/𝑟3, where 𝛼 is a positive constant of suitable dimensions and 𝑟 is the distance from the center of the orbit. If t he particle move s in the same circular orbit of radius 𝑟0 in the combined gravitational potential due to 𝑀 and 𝑉c(𝑟), but with a new time period 𝑇1, then (𝑇12−𝑇02)/𝑇12 is given by [𝐺 is the gravitational constant.]

  1. 3𝛼 𝐺𝑀𝑟02
  2. 𝛼 2𝐺𝑀𝑟02
  3. 𝛼 𝐺𝑀𝑟02
  4. 2𝛼 𝐺𝑀𝑟02
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Question 20 (Physics)

A metal target with atomic number 𝑍=46 is bombarded with a high energy electron beam. The emission of X-rays from the target is analyzed. The ratio 𝑟 of the wavelengths of the 𝐾𝛼-line and the cut -off is found to be 𝑟 = 2. If the same electron beam bombards another metal target with 𝑍 =41, the value of 𝑟 will be

  1. 2.53
  2. 1.27
  3. 2.24
  4. 1.58
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Question 21 (Physics)

A thin stiff insulated metal wire is bent into a circular loop with its two ends extending tangentially from the same point of the loop. The wire loop has mass 𝑚 and radius 𝑟 and it is in a uniform vertical magnetic field 𝐵0, as shown in the figure. Initially, it hangs vertically down wards , because of acceleration due to gravity 𝑔, on two conducting supports at P and Q. When a current 𝐼 is passed through the loop , the loop turns about the line PQ by an angle 𝜃 given by

  1. tan𝜃=𝜋𝑟𝐼𝐵0/(𝑚𝑔)
  2. tan𝜃=2𝜋𝑟𝐼𝐵0/(𝑚𝑔)
  3. tan𝜃=𝜋𝑟𝐼𝐵0/(2𝑚𝑔)
  4. tan𝜃=𝑚𝑔/(𝜋𝑟𝐼𝐵0)  For example, in a question, if (A), (B ) and
  5. are the ONLY three options corres ponding to correct answers , then choosing ONLY (A),
  6. and
  7. will get +4 marks; choosing ONLY (A) and ( B) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (A) and ( D) will get +2marks; choosing ONLY (B ) and ( D) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark; choosing ONLY
  8. will get +1 mark; choosing ONLY
  9. will get +1 mark; choosing no option(s) (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks and choosing any other option (s) will get −2 marks.
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Question 22 (Physics)

A small electric dipole 𝑝 0, having a moment of inertia I about its center, is kept at a distance r from the center of a spherical shell of radius R. The surface charge density  is uniformly distributed on the spherical shell. The dipole is initially oriented at a small angle 𝜃 as shown in the figure. While staying at a distance r, the dipole is free to rotate about its center. If released from rest, then which o f the following statement(s) is (are) correct? [𝜀0 is the permittivity of free space. ]

  1. The dipole will undergo small oscillations at any finite value of r.
  2. The dipole will undergo small oscillations at any finite value of r > R.
  3. The dipole wi ll undergo small oscillations with an angular frequency of √2𝜎𝑝0 𝜖0𝐼 at r = 2𝑅.
  4. The dipole wi ll undergo small oscillations with an angular frequency of √𝜎𝑝0 100𝜖0𝐼 at r = 10R.
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Question 23 (Physics)

A table tennis ball has radius (3/2)×10−2 m and mass (22/7)×10⁻³ kg. It is slowly pushed down into a swimming pool to a depth of 𝑑=0.7 m below the water surface and then released from rest. It emerges from the water surface at speed 𝑣, without getting we t, and rises up to a height 𝐻. Which of the following option(s) is( are) correct? [Given: 𝜋=22/7, 𝑔=10 m s−2, density of water =1×103 kg m−3, viscos ity of water =1×10⁻³ Pa-s.]

  1. The work done in pushing the ball to the depth 𝑑 is 0.077 J.
  2. If we neglect the viscous force in water , then the speed 𝑣=7 m/s.
  3. If we neglect the viscous force in water , then the height 𝐻=1.4 m.
  4. The ratio of the magnitudes of the net force excluding the viscous force to the maximum viscous force in water is 500/9.
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Question 24 (Physics)

A positive, singly ionized atom of mass number 𝐴M is accelerated from rest by the voltage 192 V. There after, it enters a rectangular region of width 𝑤 with magnetic field 𝐵⃗ 0=0.1𝑘̂ Tesla, as shown in the figure . The ion finally hits a detector at the distance 𝑥 below its starting trajectory . [Given: Mass of neutron/proton =(5/3)×10−27 kg, charge of the electron =1.6× 10−19 °C.] Which of the following option(s) is (are) correct?

  1. The value of 𝑥 for 𝐻+ ion is 4 cm.
  2. The value of 𝑥 for an ion with 𝐴M=144 is 48 cm.
  3. For detecting ions with 1≤𝐴M≤196, the minimum height (𝑥1−𝑥0) of the detector is 55 cm .
  4. The minimum width 𝑤 of the region of the magnetic field for detecting ions with 𝐴M=196 is 56 cm .
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Question 25 (Physics)

The dimensions of a cone are measured using a scale with a least count of 2 mm. The diameter of the base and the height are both measured to be 20.0 cm . The maximum percentage error in the determin ation of the volume is ______.

Numerical answer type

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Question 26 (Physics)

A ball is thrown from the location (𝑥0,𝑦0)=(0,0) of a horizontal playground with an initial speed 𝑣0 at an angle 𝜃0 from the +𝑥-direction. The ball is to be hit by a stone, which is thrown at the same time from the location (𝑥1,𝑦1)=(𝐿,0). The stone is thrown at an angle (180−𝜃1) from the +𝑥-direction with a suitable initial speed . For a fixed 𝑣0, when (𝜃0,𝜃1)=(45°,45°), the stone hits the ball after time 𝑇1, and when (𝜃0 ,𝜃1)=(60°,30°), it hits the ball after time 𝑇2. In such a case, (𝑇1/𝑇2)2 is ______.

Numerical answer type

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Question 27 (Physics)

A charge is kept at the central point P of a cylindrical region . The two edges subtend a half -angle  at P, as shown in the figure. When  = 30∘, then the electric flux through the curved surface of the cylinder is Φ. If  = 60∘, then the electric flux through the curved surface becomes Φ/√𝑛, where the value of n is______.

Numerical answer type

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Question 28 (Physics)

Two equilateral -triangular prisms P 1 and P 2 are kept with their sides parallel to each other , in vacuum, as shown in the figure. A light ray enters prism P1 at an angle of incidence 𝜃 such that the outgoing ray undergoes minimum deviation in prism P2. If the respective refractive indices of P 1 and P 2 are √3 2 and √3, then 𝜃=sin−1[√3 2sin(𝜋 𝛽)], wherethe value of  is ______.

Numerical answer type

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Question 29 (Physics)

An infinitely long thin wire, having a uniform charge density per unit length of 5 nC/m, is passing through a spherical shell of radius 1 m, as shown in the figure. A 10 nC charge is distributed uniformly over the spherical shell. If the configuration of the charges remain s static, t he magnit ude of the potential difference between points P and R, in Volt , is ______. [Given: In SI units 1 4πϵ0=9×109, ln2=0.7. Ignore the area pierced by the wire .]

Numerical answer type

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Question 30 (Physics)

A spherical soap bubble inside an air chamber at pressure 𝑃0=105 Pa has a certain radius so that the excess pressure inside the bubble is Δ𝑃=144 Pa. Now , the chamber pressure is reduced to 8𝑃0/27 so that the bubble radius and its excess pressure change. In this process, all the temperature s remain unchanged . Assume air to be an ideal gas and the excess pressure Δ𝑃 in both the cases to be much smaller than the chamber pressure . The new excess pressure Δ𝑃 in Pa is ______. PARAGRAPH I In a Young’s double slit experiment, each of the two slits A and B, as shown in the figure, are oscillating about their fixed center and with a m ean separation of 0.8 mm. The distance between the slits at time t is given by 𝑑=(0.8+0.04sin𝜔𝑡) mm, where 𝜔=0.08 rad s⁻¹. The distance of the screen from the slits is 1 m and t he wavelength of the light used to illuminate the slits is 60 00 Å. The interference pattern on the screen changes with time , while the central bright fringe (zeroth frin ge) remains fixed at point O.

Numerical answer type

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Question 31 (Physics)

The 8th bright fringe above the point O oscillates with time between two extreme positions. The separation between these two extreme positions, in micro meter (𝜇m), is ______ . PARAGRAPH I In a Young’s double slit experiment, each of the two slits A and B, as shown in the figure, are oscillating about their fixed center and with a m ean separation of 0.8 mm. The distance between the slits at time t is given by 𝑑=(0.8+0.04sin𝜔𝑡) mm, where 𝜔=0.08 rad s⁻¹. The distance of the screen from the slits is 1 m and t he wavelength of the light used to illuminate the slits is 60 00 Å. The interference pattern on the screen changes with time , while the central bright fringe (zeroth fringe) r emains fixed at point O.

Numerical answer type

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Question 32 (Physics)

The maximum speed in 𝜇m/s at which the 8th bright fringe will move is __________ . PARAGRAPH I I Two particles, 1 and 2, each of mass 𝑚, are connected by a massless spring , and are on a horizontal frictionless plane , as shown in the figure. Initially, t he two particles , with their center of mass at 𝑥0, are oscillating with amplitude 𝑎 and angular frequency 𝜔. Thus, the ir positions at time 𝑡 are given by 𝑥1(𝑡)=(𝑥0+𝑑)+𝑎 sin𝜔𝑡 and 𝑥2(𝑡)=(𝑥0−𝑑)−𝑎 sin𝜔𝑡, respectively , where 𝑑>2𝑎. Particle 3 of mass 𝑚 moves towa rds this system with speed 𝑢0=𝑎𝜔/2, and undergoes instantaneous el astic collision with particle 2 , at time 𝑡0. Finally, particles 1 and 2 acquire a center of mass speed 𝑣cm and oscillate with amplitude 𝑏 and the same angular frequency 𝜔.

Numerical answer type

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Question 33 (Physics)

If the collision occurs at time 𝑡0=0, the value of 𝑣cm/(𝑎𝜔) will be __________ . PARAGRAPH II Two particles, 1 and 2, each of mass 𝑚, are connected by a massless spring , and are on a horizontal frictionless plane , as shown in the figure. Initially, t he two particles, with their center of mass at 𝑥0, are oscillating with amplitude 𝑎 and angular frequency 𝜔. Thus, the ir positions at time 𝑡 are given by 𝑥1(𝑡)=(𝑥0+𝑑)+𝑎 sin𝜔𝑡 and 𝑥2(𝑡)=(𝑥0−𝑑)−𝑎 sin𝜔𝑡, respectively, where 𝑑>2𝑎. Particle 3 of mass 𝑚 moves towa rds this system with speed 𝑢0=𝑎𝜔/2, and undergoes instantaneous elastic collision with particle 2, at time 𝑡0. Finally, particles 1 and 2 acquire a center o f mass speed 𝑣cm and oscillate with amplitude 𝑏 and the same angular frequency 𝜔.

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Question 34 (Physics)

If the collision occurs at time 𝑡0=𝜋/(2𝜔), then the value of 4𝑏2/𝑎2 will be ________.

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Question 35 (Chemistry)

According to Bohr’s model, the highest kinetic energy is associated with the electron in the

  1. first orbit of H atom
  2. first orbit of He+
  3. second orbit of He+
  4. second orbit of Li2+
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Question 36 (Chemistry)

In a metal deficient oxide sample, MXY2O4 (M and Y are metals) , M is present in both +2 and +3 oxidation states and Y is in +3 oxidation state. If the fraction of M2+ ions present in M is 1 3 , the value of X is _____.

  1. 0.25
  2. 0.33
  3. 0.67
  4. 0.75
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Question 37 (Chemistry)

In the following reaction sequence, the major product Q is

  1. JEE (Advanced) 202 4 Paper 2 2/8
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Question 38 (Chemistry)

The species formed on fluorination of phosphorus pentachloride in a polar organic solvent are

  1. [PF 4]+[PF 6]− and [PCl 4]+[PF 6]−
  2. [PCl 4]+[PCl 4F2]− and [PCl 4]+[PF 6]−
  3. PF 3 and PCl 3
  4. PF 5 and PCl 3 JEE (Advanced) 202 4 Paper 2 3/8
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Question 39 (Chemistry)

An aqueous solution of hydrazine (N 2H4) is electrochemically oxidized by O 2, thereby releasing chemical energy in the form of electrical energy. One of the products generated from the electrochemical reaction is N 2(g). Choose the correct statement(s) about the above process

  1. OH− ions react with N 2H4 at the anode to form N 2(g) and water, releasing 4 electrons to the anode.
  2. At the cathode, N 2H4 breaks to N 2(g) and nascent hydrogen released at the electrode reacts with oxygen to form water.
  3. At the cathode, molecular oxygen gets converted to OH−.
  4. Oxides of nitrogen are major by -products of the electrochemical process. • For example, in a question, if (A), (B ) and
  5. are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers , then choosing ONLY (A),
  6. and
  7. will get +4 marks; choosing ONLY (A) and ( B) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (A) and ( D) will get +2marks; choosing ONLY (B ) and ( D) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark; choosing ONLY
  8. will get +1 mark; choosing ONLY
  9. will get +1 mark; choosing no option(s) (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks and choosing any other option (s) will get −2 marks. JEE (Advanced) 202 4 Paper 2 4/8
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Question 40 (Chemistry)

The option(s) with correct sequence of reagents for the conversion of P to Q is(are)

  1. i) Lindlar’s catalyst, H 2; ii) SnCl 2/HCl; iii) NaBH 4; iv) H 3O+
  2. i) Lindlar’s catalyst, H 2; ii) H 3O+; iii) SnCl 2/HCl; iv) NaBH 4
  3. i) NaBH 4; ii) SnCl 2/HCl; iii) H 3O+; iv) Lindlar’s catalyst, H 2
  4. i) Lindlar’s catalyst, H 2; ii) NaBH 4; iii) SnCl 2/HCl; iv) H 3O+
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Question 41 (Chemistry)

The compound(s) having peroxide linkage is(are)

  1. H 2S2O7
  2. H 2S2O8
  3. H 2S2O5
  4. H 2SO 5 JEE (Advanced) 202 4 Paper 2 5/8
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Question 42 (Chemistry)

To form a complete monolayer of acetic acid on 1g of charcoal, 100 mL of 0.5 M acetic acid was used. Some of the acetic acid remained unadsorbed. To neutralize the unadsorbed acetic acid, 40 mL of 1 M NaOH solution was required. If each molecule of acetic acid occupies P x 10−23 m² surface area on charcoal, the value of P is _____. [Use given data: Surface area of charcoal = 1.5 x 102 m²g−1; Avogadro’s number (NA) = 6.0 x 1023 mol⁻¹]

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Question 43 (Chemistry)

Vessel -1 contains w2 g of a non -volatile solute X dissolved in w1 g of water. Vessel -2 contains w2 g of another non -volatile solute Y dissolved in w1 g of water. Both the vessels are at the same temperature and pressure. The molar mass of X is 80% of that of Y. The van’t Hoff factor for X is 1.2 times of that of Y for their respective concentrations. The elevation of boiling point for solution in Vessel -1 is _____ % of the solution in Vessel -2.

Numerical answer type

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Question 44 (Chemistry)

For a double strand DNA, one strand is given below : The amount of energy required to split the double strand DNA into two single strands is _____ kcal mol⁻¹. [Given : Average energy per H-bond for A -T base pair = 1.0 kcal mol⁻¹, G-C base pair = 1.5 kcal mol⁻¹, and A -U base pair = 1.25 kcal mol⁻¹. Ignore electrostatic repulsion between the phosphate groups.] JEE (Advanced) 202 4 Paper 2 6/8

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Question 45 (Chemistry)

A sample initially contains only U -238 isotope of uranium. With time, some of the U -238 radioactively decays into Pb -206 while the rest of it remains undisintegrated. When the age of the sample is P x108 years, the ratio of mass of Pb -206 to that of U -238 in the sample is found to be 7. The value of P is _____. [Given: Half -life of U -238 is 4.5 x109 years; log e2 = 0.693]

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Question 46 (Chemistry)

Among [Co(CN)4]4−,[Co(CO)3(NO)],XeF₄, [PCl4]+,[PdC l4]2− ,[ICl4]− ,[Cu(CN)4]3− and P₄ the total number of species with tetrahedral geometry is _____.

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Question 47 (Chemistry)

An organic compound P having molecular formula C 6H6O3 gives ferric chloride test and does not have intramolecular hydrogen bond. The compound P reacts with 3 equivalents of NH 2OH to produce oxime Q. Treatment of P with excess methyl iodide in the presence of KOH produces compound R as the major product . Reaction of R with excess iso-butylmagnesium bromide followed by treatment with H 3O+ gives compound S as the major product. The total number of methyl (−CH 3) group(s) in compound S is _____. JEE (Advanced) 202 4 Paper 2 7/8 “PARAGRAPH I” An organic compound P with molecular formula C 9H18O₂ decolorizes bromine water and also shows positive iodoform test. P on ozonolysis followed by treatment with H 2O₂ gives Q and R. While compound Q shows positive iodoform test, compound R does not give positive iodoform test. Q and R on oxidation with pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC) followed by heating give S and T, respectively. Both S and T show positive iodoform test. Complete c opolymerization of 500 moles of Q and 500 moles of R gives one mole of a single acyclic copolymer U. [Given, atomic mass: H =1, C = 12, O =16]

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Question 48 (Chemistry)

Sum of number of oxygen atoms in S and T is _____. “PARAGRAPH I” An organic compound P with molecular formula C 9H18O₂ decolorizes bromine water and also shows positive iodoform test. P on ozonolysis followed by treatment with H 2O₂ gives Q and R. While compound Q shows positive iodoform test, compound R does not give positive iodoform test. Q and R on oxidation with pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC) followed by heating give S and T, respectively. Both S and T show positive iodoform test. Complete c opolymerization of 500 moles of Q and 500 moles of R gives one mole of a single acyclic copolymer U. [Given, atomic mass: H =1, C = 12, O =16]

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Question 49 (Chemistry)

The molecular weight of U is _____. JEE (Advanced) 202 4 Paper 2 8/8 “PARAGRAPH II” When potassium iodide is added to an aqueous solution of potassium ferricyanide, a reversible reaction is observed in which a complex P is formed. In a strong acidic medium, the equilibrium shifts completely towards P. Addition of zinc chloride to P in a slightly acidic medium results in a sparingly soluble complex Q.

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Question 50 (Chemistry)

The number of moles of potassium iodide required to produce two moles of P is _____. “PARAGRAPH II” When potassium iodide is added to an aqueous solution of potassium ferricyanide, a reversible reaction is observed in which a complex P is formed. In a strong acidic medium, the equilibrium shifts completely towards P. Addition of zinc chloride to P in a slightly acidic medium results in a sparingly soluble complex Q.

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Question 51 (Chemistry)

The number of zinc ions present in the molecular formula of Q is _____.

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